PT114.S4.Q25 > Question

SECTION 1 · lr

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SECTION 2 · lr

SECTION 3 · rc

PASSAGE 1

Question 1 Question 2 Question 3 Question 4 Question 5 Question 6 Question 7 Question 8

PASSAGE 2

Question 9 Question 10 Question 11 Question 12 Question 13 Question 14

PASSAGE 3

Question 15 Question 16 Question 17 Question 18 Question 19 Question 20

PASSAGE 4

Question 21 Question 22 Question 23 Question 24 Question 25 Question 26 Question 27

SECTION 4 · lr

European music has had a strong influence throughout the world, and it is a sophisticated achievement.

One reason for this is that the original function of the music gradually became an aspect of its style, but didn’t define the music.

For example, dance music can stand independent of dance, and sacred music can stand independent of religion.

European music has so much internal coherence that it doesn’t depend on anything besides the music itself.

There’s no clear inference to draw here. I’d rely on process of elimination to identify what must be false.

Could be true. We’re never told European music has had the most powerful impact on the world. So it could be true that another kind of music had a more powerful impact.

Could be true. We were told about one reason European music has been so influential. So there can be other reasons, too.

Could be true. Perhaps Chinese music is also influential and sophisticated because the original function of the music isn’t a defining force.

Incompatible. We were told that one of the reasons European music is sophisticated is that it can stand apart from its original function. So it doesn’t make sense for the music unable to stand apart from original function to tend to be the most sophisticated.

Could be true. Some works might lose their appeal when they’re presented to serve a function other than the original. European music, however, is different from these works.

PrepTest 114 - Section 4 - Question 25

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