Hi there, I have a couple questions about PT104.S2.P2 on medieval guilds. Many thanks in advance for your help!

Question 2: According to the passage, which one of the following statements about law courts in medieval England is true?

I initially leaned toward A: Some English lawyers who practiced in civil courts also practiced in church courts, but others served exclusively in one court or the other.

However, I doubted it because I thought that, on the LSAT, “some” can be inclusive of all. The portion of the passage that would support this answer choices states: 

 The alternative inference, namely, that ecclesiastical advocates were less prone to ethical lapses than their counterparts in the civil courts, seems inherently weak, especially since there was some overlap of personnel between the civil bar and the ecclesiastical bar.

By stating there was “some overlap of personnel,” I assumed that it could mean anything from one person to every person who overlapped. Therefore, I did not feel confident selecting: “Some English lawyers who practiced in civil courts also practiced in church courts, but others served exclusively in one court or the other” because I didn’t feel I could support conclusively the claim that others served exclusively in one court or the other. Am I missing something? 

Question 7: The passage suggests that which one of the following is most likely to have been true of medieval guilds?

I chose D: Medieval guilds found it difficult to enforce discipline among their members.

The explanation states: Anti-supported. We know that “other guilds” (besides canon lawyer associations) “often did [play a role in enforcing standards of conduct].

However, I am a bit confused because in the first paragraph of the passage, the author states: Advocates' professional organizations showed little fervor for disciplining their erring members. Some even attempted to hobble efforts at enforcement. The Florentine guild of lawyers, for example, forbade its members to play any role in disciplinary proceedings against other guild members.

By referencing the Florentine guild of lawyers, I thought they were providing an example of those professional associations that, as described in paragraph two, “were so inefficient that most delinquents escaped detection and punishment.” The author then goes on to argue that this hypothesis/characterization is more likely correct than the alternative posed. 

Perhaps I’m just mixing up guilds versus professional associations?