interested! (I'm in Cambridge, feel free to dm)

I see why (A) is wrong if we're assuming that one can be capable of experiencing an emotion without experiencing it, but why isn't (D) wrong on account of the fact that a computer could be constructed so as to be incapable of emotion, but nevertheless still experience emotion? (For example, even if OpenAI hasn't constructed ChatGPT to be capable of experiencing emotions, perhaps this capability emerges in an unforeseen way.)