Hello! Could I get some outside opinions to break down why A is more correct than D? My thought process was:

"Few" people are influenced... in the shoes of the columnist, I'm thinking, ANY amount of people being influenced is worth banning these polls if it doesn't have any negative consequences to do so. If this had said "no" people, then I would have chosen it.

If the polls show late gains in popularity, that could be useful information to voters; did something happen leading up to the elections to cause shifting tides? Could certainly be good information to know, which would be something to point out in the argument to not ban polls.