Hi 7Sagers,
I was hoping to get some help with J.Y's reasoning in one of the explanations videos. According to J.Y., the statement "as many people consume caffeine as consume any one of the other addictive psychoactive substances" means that the number of people who consume caffeine is equal to or greater than the number of people who consume other addictive psychoactive substances. I just don't see how that makes sense. For me, it would make sense to say that:
"the number of people who consume caffeine **is equal to ** the number of people who consume other addictive psychoactive substances.
Any thoughts? Or other ways to conceptualize this statement?
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I am interested. Snapchat username: gabborges11