So I took the October LSAT and came in at a 169. My dream school is Stanford, which puts me on the 25th percentile in terms of LSAT score. My undergrad LSDAS GPA was calculated to be 3.68 which is a little below 25th percentile. The real GPA was a tenth of a point higher, but I suppose that is irrelevant for my purpose. I would call myself something of a non-traditional law student. I have a Master's in Music, as well as some post grad studies, and was a professional classical guitarist/instructor for five or so years and have traveled much of the world. I only list these last things out of hope that they might somehow set me apart on my application, though that may be wishful thinking. I'm looking for a little advice here. Should I apply? or would that be tantamount to lighting a $100 bill on fire?
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I don't think I'll retake unless it's in the next application cycle. I live pretty close to a top 20 regional school for which my score should be good enough and I have in state tuition. So that's my backup.
I'm with you. I was consistently hitting 172 on my PT's and even felt like I dominated after writing the real LSAT. I thought there was a real possibility that I had a 173-175. Enter stage left, like 5 ridiculously stupid answer choices and I came in at 169. I dropped my worst LR section since maybe April (-6 on the section with the chameleon question) and then made roughly three absolute bonehead mistakes on the LG. Dropped two questions on the first game. Looking at that game, I'm sure I could ace it if I was drunk but that's adrenaline for you. I guess as an added bonus the LSAT writers threw in a lesson in humility for free. How decent of them. Back to the drawing board.
I'm having the same problem. I'm aware that the PDF's are gone, but the page the follows each problem set, where the answers and the video links are to be found, seems to have disappeared.
This seems to be an instance of when the normally accurate negation test fails. I'm thinking downturn could've caused a significant reduction of the amount of money on deposit and the banks could still increase the amount of money loaned. Maybe before the recession the banks loaned out 50% of the deposited money (let's pretend there are $100 total in the banks for simplicity's sake). They are loaning out $50. Boom, recession. The total amount on deposit drops to $80. The bankers go rogue and decide to be a little riskier with people's money (in a way that might not conflict with the tightening of standards, since those standards were never stated). Now they loan out 75% of the total deposited money or $60. The total amount of money loaned out went up by $10 (a 20% increase over the original amount). I feel like this question forces the assumption that the banks use all of their available money for loans to be made in addition to answer choice A, otherwise A isn't really necessary. Can anyone tell me if I'm nuts or not? and if so where am I going wrong here?