I don't get it. The total amount of family prosperity is the same in C, it would be the DISTRIBUTION of that family prosperity (the "pie" as JY describes) amongst its members that would be affected, not the total amount of prosperity itself. But since we're talking about the family's prosperity as a whole, not its individual members, how would it reduce the prosperity?
I don't get it. The total amount of family prosperity is the same in C, it would be the DISTRIBUTION of that family prosperity (the "pie" as JY describes) amongst its members that would be affected, not the total amount of prosperity itself. But since we're talking about the family's prosperity as a whole, not its individual members, how would it reduce the prosperity?