Hi! I just got this question wrong myself, so don't take my word for it, but after some review I think I understand why. The argument states: for some art, beauty is in the eye of the beholder BECAUSE 1) the same form of art can be valuable to one person and valueless to another and 2) there is no objective standard for determining value. This implies that two people who disagree over the artistic value of a given painting use different sets of standards for determining artistic value. This does not have to be the case, as D implies, where two people could be using the same criteria to evaluate a piece of art, but one or both could be implementing that criteria correctly, thus proving that beauty is NOT in the eye of the beholder.
With regard to E, I believe it is wrong because expertise is irrelevant to the argument. Even if you are an expert in making these judgements, that does not detract from the claim that there is no objective standard for making judgements.
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Hi! I just got this question wrong myself, so don't take my word for it, but after some review I think I understand why. The argument states: for some art, beauty is in the eye of the beholder BECAUSE 1) the same form of art can be valuable to one person and valueless to another and 2) there is no objective standard for determining value. This implies that two people who disagree over the artistic value of a given painting use different sets of standards for determining artistic value. This does not have to be the case, as D implies, where two people could be using the same criteria to evaluate a piece of art, but one or both could be implementing that criteria correctly, thus proving that beauty is NOT in the eye of the beholder.
With regard to E, I believe it is wrong because expertise is irrelevant to the argument. Even if you are an expert in making these judgements, that does not detract from the claim that there is no objective standard for making judgements.