Hey guys. Newbie here that just signed up on this site a few days ago. I'm confused as to why, when, and how JY is applying the following analogy. Can someone help me understand this?

All beings that are Jedi’s are entities that use the force.

Jedi = Force User

This seems different from:

If Jedi, then Force User.

IF a being IS a Jedi, then the being must be a force user. Isn’t later is a conditional??? And thus not a logical equivalent? Do you see what I’m asking?

If it is the case that:

Jedi = Force User

then it is necessarily the case that:

Force User = Jedi.

But this renders the premise completely not true. Force User also = Sith and Sith (do not equal) Jedi.

I don’t care to pick a debate over about Jedi vs Sith, or Disney vs Lucasfilm. What I’m trying to understand is how equals can be construed as the logical equivalent of a conditional on the LSAT?

Isn't "=" traditionally used as follows?:

Anakin = Darth Vader

Darth Vader = Anakin

Thus "=" functions differently in the form than "->". It is entirely different than saying:

IF Anakin THEN Vader.

Thanks again to anyone who can simplify and clarify! Much appreciated.