Self-study
sydneygf
- Joined
- Mar 2025
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- Free
Admissions profile
LSAT
166
CAS GPA
Not provided
1L START YEAR
2026
Take schizophrenia as an example-
Common symptoms are visual and auditory hallucinations.
In, let's say, America, someone experiencing those symptoms is considered abnormal, or ill, and we apply a clinical lens to it, because culturally, those people are labeled as "crazy". We have a medical diagnosis for that.
Now pretend we are in an indigenous tribe somewhere, and culturally, shamans are a large part of their way of life. It is believed that those shamans see and hear messages from the universe or gods. Culturally, what we consider hallucinations, they are considered a blessing. This person will be respected. Schizophrenia doesn't exist to them. Therefore, the symptoms aren't even symptoms.
The cultural norms between the United States and a remote tribe somewhere are very different, so how someone with auditory and visual hallucinations will be treated will be very different.
Hopefully, this makes some sense. I think this is what they are kind of trying to say, or at least the way I interpreted it. The way this question is worded is very strange.