PT51.S3.Q19 - archaic spellings and styles of punctuation

JS

http://7sage.com/lsat_explanations/lsat-51-section-3-question-19/

You can look at the stimulus in this link.

I believe Jon's explanation for B is wrong because an editor may modernize spelling without providing an explanation, for instance, if similar modernizing has been done in more than one quotation, then you can modernize them just inserting a general statement in the preface.

I know why D is right, but still don't know why B is wrong.

Can anyone help me clarify it?

Angelica Pickles

Hi JS,

You can eliminate because the style manual tells us that we can correct w/o explanation if it's an "obvious typographical error." An obvious typo is not the same thing as an archaic spelling.