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Ex. PT 35 S3 G2 Q8 : Rule for the question is If L then P. Causing 2 options to be chosen when L is chosen.
The element T however based on the rules in the beginning causes T to have only 1 (P,L,S).
I haven't done that many logic games yet, but I thought when a question changes the rule and the possibility of T having P is possible (P,L,S is part of the board for the elements to have), wouldn't it be overriding the rule that T has to have only 1 (Rule fewer than Z, if your looking at the game and actual rule).
I know for questions that have local rules the rules for that only pertain to that question and is disregarded for the rest of the questions.
Sorry in advance if I couldn't explain what I was trying to say correctly.
Comments
Here is what I understand from your question
L arrow P
If T then only one element from ( P, L, S)
Now from these two rules here are the possibilities
T and P could be together
T and S could be together
T and L cannot be together as from the first rule it would cause T to be with L and P which is not possible as from rule 2.
So T and P is surely a possibility and wouldn't override any rule. As having P does not implies L while having L implies P.
Thanks
In logic games, the only way a rule is overridden is if the question outright states "instead of rule x, rule y." Otherwise, the new rule coincides with the existing rules and doesn't create any contradictions with the existing rules.