http://7sage.com/lsat_explanations/lsat-18-section-2-question-23/I'm having trouble translating the "not until" statement. Until is "negate sufficient" but the "not" cancels the negation from the until rule so then it reads just like an if then. Is it ok for me to go ahead and memorize that when group 3 and 4 indicators are used this way in the beginning of a sentence they cancel each other and it reads like an if then?
Comments
I think if you aim for an intuitive understanding of this sentence then it might help you to see the relationship better. "Not until teachers have the power... Can they enable their students to make own decisions." So the sentence is making a necessary confusion out of the PMDC variable, because it is saying "not until" that occurs can SMOD. Thus, because it is a necessary, it reads like "if SMOD, then it must be true that teachers PMDC".
To break it down in more manageable bits:
Not until X can Y occur.
This is saying that if there is no X, then there is no Y: /x--->/y, or the contrapositive: y--->x.
Again, x is the necessary condition, because the "not until" is creating a necessary condition out of x, which is what we have in our contrapositive.
Finally, if it is easier to think of in terms of "unless" for you, it's a pretty intuitive English translation:
"Not until teachers have PMDC can they enable SMOD"
Can be with unless as:
"Unless teachers have PMDC, students will not be able to MOD"
Hope this helps!
Turns out I was confused. I'm glad I reached out for help. Thank you.