PT33.S1.Q11 - Researchers have discovered that...

The Real Harvey SpecterThe Real Harvey Specter Core Member
edited January 2023 in Logical Reasoning 36 karma

Hi 7Sagers,

I was hoping to get some help with J.Y's reasoning in one of the explanations videos. According to J.Y., the statement "as many people consume caffeine as consume any one of the other addictive psychoactive substances" means that the number of people who consume caffeine is equal to or greater than the number of people who consume other addictive psychoactive substances. I just don't see how that makes sense. For me, it would make sense to say that:

"the number of people who consume caffeine **is equal to ** the number of people who consume other addictive psychoactive substances.

Any thoughts? Or other ways to conceptualize this statement?

Admin Note: Edited title. Please use the format: "PT#.S#.Q# - brief description of the question"

Comments

  • sh.francissh.francis Core Member
    246 karma

    I would have intuitively read it the same way as JY, because in my subjective understanding the term “as many” is inherently vague and does not imply “exactly”.

    But it’s a close call and your reading would more closely reflect the dictionary definition of as many.

    That being said, the LSAT is written by phds in linguistics and philosophy… the correct answer choice would never hinge on the meaning of a phrase with such an ambitious idiomatic usage. That’s not what they are testing. Even if you read it the way you did, you would end up with the same answer choice.

  • WinningHereWinningHere Member
    417 karma

    It’s an lsat way of saying “at least as” and possibly greater

Sign In or Register to comment.