http://7sage.com/lsat_explanations/lsat-57-section-3-question-12/I got confused by A because if you negate it, the argument falls apart. If you negate A and assume people obey commands even without mechanisms to compel obedience, then you can no longer assume that international law is ineffective just because there is no police force.
wait, is it because international law would guide nation states, not people?
I definitely like E, but thought A was the absolute necessary choice when compared to E, after a negating test.
Thanks in advance for the help!
Comments
Conclusion: What is called "international law" is not effective law.
Premise: there is currently no international police force.
Premise: The power of the police to enforce a society’s laws makes those laws effective.
There is also a subsidiary conclusion
Sub Conclusion: That is Why societies have POLICE.
Premise: To qualify as an effective law, as opposed to merely an impressive declaration, a command must be backed up by an EFFECTIVE ENFORCEMENT mechanism.
Gap: The argument equates effective enforcement with police (or if NO police, then no effective enforcement). And then takes that equivalence from the sub-conclusion and applies it to the main conclusion involving international law.
Elimination: (A) negated is “ Some people obey commands even though mechanisms to compel obedience don’t exist.” I can see how that might seem like it’s destroying the argument, but does the argument have anything to say about the people being policed? The people’s obedience is completely out of the argument’s scope. (B) has the correct elements, but it mixes up the logic. (C) law of individual society is out of scope. (D) enforcement is great, but it doesn’t bridge effectiveness. (E) looks good.
Selection: (E) negated is “Some international law cannot be effectively enforced by an international police force”. Kills the argument because it focuses on the effective enforcement and the police. (E) is the correct answer.
Hope this helps
Hope this helps!
2. There is no international police force
______________________________
International law is not effective law
Argument's assumption: International Police = ONLY enforcement mechanism
This assumption is glaring. What if international law could be enforced in other ways such as trade sanctions?
(A) The fact that SOME people might obey commands without enforcement mechanisms is out of scope. So what? The argument has already said (premise 1) that effective laws need enforcement. Don't attack the premise, that's not what you're tasked with.
P1: To qualify as an effective law, ..., a command must be backed up by an effective enforcement mechanism.
P2: But there is currently no international police force.
C: What is called "international law" is not effective law.
Let's look at the conclusion:
What do we know about the effective law? We know from P1 that effective law --> effective enforcement. What do we know about "international law?" We know from P2 that they have no international police force.
How to get to the conclusion that "IL" is not effective law? we need to link IL, lacking international police force, with negating "effective enforcement," the necessary condition of effective law. (E)
(A) In my opinion,the quickest way to get rid of A is to recognize it is not even talking about law or international police force. You might be assuming that "[individual] obeys a command" = "effective law" and "mechanism to compel obedience" = "international police force." But such assumptions are never justified because the scope and meaning are quite different.
Hope this helps!