PT28.S1.Q21 - psychologist: some astrologers claim that

Comments

• NYC12345 Alum Inactive Sage

  August 2015 1654 karma

  @bruno.dalsanto
  The answer is "C" because the psychologist is arguing that horoscopes do not completely determine our personalities by citing an example of two individuals born on the same day with different personalities. The negation of "C" leads one to assume that the two individuals may have had different horoscopes, which destroys the argument (horoscopes do not completely determine personality). Let me know if this clears things up for you.
• bruno.dalsanto Alum Member

  August 2015 94 karma

  thank you @alexandergreene93 , I see why we cannot negate C but what I am having a hard time understanding is, the stimulus does not just say they were born at the same time in different countries but it also says they were born in the same day and I just can't understand how can people born in the same day have different horoscopes.( my definition of the same day is same day and same month though), what do you think?
  
• c.janson35 Free Trial Inactive Sage Inactive ⭐

  August 2015 2398 karma

  The implicit assumption that the psychologist is making is that the two people referenced have the same horoscope, so the fact that they have different personalities would support her argument that horoscope isn't the main determinant of personalities. But this is an assumption he/she is making! There's no way to know if it is in fact the case that they have different horoscopes, and if they didn't then her argument would fall apart completely. Maybe there's something with the time zone shift that is sufficient to making the horoscopes different, or maybe the cultural differences between NY and Toronto alter the way horoscope is read/assigned, also leading to different signs. These possibilities show why we NEED answer choice C to be true, because it helps to affirm the psychologist's initial implicit assumption.