I would appreciate if somebody could clarify this one for me..
https://7sage.com/lsat_explanations/lsat-72-section-2-question-14/Here, JY equates, “Those who ate the most chocolate were the most likely to feel depressed” with “Chocolate Consumption –positively correlated with– Depression”
https://7sage.com/lsat_explanations/lsat-47-section-1-question-26/Here, JY says “Ones who improved the most were the ones who learned to write the most automatically” is not establishing a correlation. (because we don't know what happened to the 2nd tier people)
What’s going on?
I have also posted a similar question on the PT 72 S2 Q14 down in the comment..
1. Those who ate the most chocolate were the most likely to feel depressed.
2. The more chocolate one consumed, the more likely he/she felt depressed.
Aren’t these two different in meaning? Because for the first statement we don’t know what happened to the middle/low range chocolate eaters..
But we still translate both of them as..
Chocolate Consumption –positively correlated with– Depression
Thoughts?
Thanks in advance!
Comments
I'm asking what if "low range chocolate eaters felt more depressed than middle range chocolate eaters"?
In statement 2, we're doing something quite different. We're establishing a scale upon which every chocolate eater will fall. The higher up on this scale that one falls, the more likely one is to feel depressed.
Very different. I imagine in statement 1 that those set of people just ate WAY too much chocolate. I did that a couple of Christmases ago actually and can confirm that I was quite depressed for a couple of days. But in that example, my depression came from crossing the threshold of eating more chocolate than can be comfortably eaten. Before I crossed that threshold and entered into the set of "those who ate the most chocolate," I would actually say my likelihood of depression decreased. The failure to account for the possibility of such a threshold is what makes statement 2 unable to function the same as statement 1.
If so, why does JY say the statement "Ones who improved the most were the ones who learned to write the most automatically" in PT47 S1 Q26 does not establish a correlation?
Thank you so much for your help!