PT38.S4.Q25 - one reason why european music

Joe DCastroJoe DCastro Alum Member
edited May 2017 in Logical Reasoning 26 karma

I am so confused by the video explanation on this one. At 1:27 the video says that an answer choice is "totally compatible to the statement above because they have nothing to do with each other"

===> WHAT??? Compatibility is not having anything to do with a subject? I can use some guidance. Thanks.
https://7sage.com/lsat_explanations/lsat-38-section-4-question-25/

Comments

  • akistotleakistotle Member ⭐ 🍌🍌
    edited May 2017 9382 karma

    I am posting the video explanation that you're referring to (so that everyone can comment :smile: ): https://7sage.com/lsat_explanations/lsat-38-section-4-question-25/

    As for your question, if one situation has nothing to do with another situation, they are compatible. I think the dictionary definition of "compatible" is "(of two things) able to exist together without conflict." If two things can exist or occur together without any conflict, they are compatible.

    The stimulus is talking about European music and (A) is talking about African music. They have nothing to do with each other. The two situations can coexist without any conflict. (A) COULD be true because we don't know anything about African music from the stimulus.

  • goingfor99thgoingfor99th Free Trial Member
    edited May 2017 3072 karma

    A: All dogs bark.
    B: All cats scratch.

    These two things have nothing to do with each other. Are they not compatible? The fact that 'all dogs bark' exerts no logical pressure on the fact that 'all cats scratch.' One is not required for the other, and both can be true at the same time. They are, in fact, compatible.

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