Interested in seeing if anyone in the mid to high 150s would like to do some virtual study sessions. I am taking the LSAT in January and am in CST time zone.
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Why should I assume that the phenomenon extends beyond just explaining why people do not accept low offers? I guess the first sentence of paragraph 3 sort of shows that, but why could it not be interpreted as "the insistence of the receiver on a fair division"? The author rejects the first explanation because it does not fully explain the receivers motivations. I know it is common sense to think the author would want to prove their theory to be better in every way than the other theory by being able to make more explanations, but still; just not enough was shown to imply the phenomenon extended beyond people preferring to take nothing instead of a little.
I don't think this is the best example of circular reasoning, because there could be crimes happening every second; and even if violent crimes are very rare compared to the whole, there would still be a large number of them.
The premises indicate that both effort to studies and methods appropriate to learning styles are sufficient to achieve broad mastery
The contrapositive of this is that if a student did not achieve broad mastery then it must be that either they did not devote efforts to their studies or were not taught with methods appropriate to their learning style.
The conclusion is that if a student did not achieve broad mastery, then they were not taught methods appropriate to their learning styles; but there is no way we can infer this; because they could have very well not been studying hard.
In order for the conclusion to logically follow, then being taught methods appropriate to learning styles must be sufficient for devoting effort to studies, because then if they did not devote effort to their studies then they were not taught methods appropriate to their learning styles.
Ok, it seems to that I was confusing P3 as the second modern criticism where the author is more involved in critiquing it rather than the author critiquing the assumptions behind both criticisms, with the first modern criticism being in P1. I thought "The earlier criticism" referenced an argument prior to modern commentators, like it was said right after the Victorian period.
I seem to always get these wrong in preptests and timed sections but going through this lesson was easy.
It seems like these can sometimes trip you up under timed conditions when you are trying to figure out the arguments assumptions
Is this the right logic?
Squirrel Monkeys not Extinct = Conservationists Intervened
Forest preserved = Squirrel Monkeys not extinct
Therefore:
Forest Preserved = Squirrel Monkeys not Extinct = Conservationists intervened.
Conservationists don't intervene = Squirrel Monkeys Extinct = Forest not preserved
stomach function and stomach irritation are not necessarily distinct concepts, but I understand why A is correct.