I am confused about the word “generally” in the conclusion.
To Recap The argument form in Lawgic:
P1: Emotional Tendencies /(Changed)
Required Premise: Emotional Tendencies /(Changed)-> Generally /(Able to choose more wisely)
Conclusion: Generally /(Able to choose more wisely)
Answer choice E seems to bridge this quite well, (Able to choose more wisely)->Emotional Tendencies (Changed)
However, the conclusion is qualified with the word “generally,” which implies that that it holds true “in most cases.”
This, however, implies that SOME people can choose more wisely even if emotional Tendencies are NOT changed. This is precisely the negation of the conditional relationship between 'Emotional Tendencies' and 'Choosing more wisely.'
If all of the above is correct, then the sufficient assumption stipulated by answer choice E is presumably not even valid in all cases. So how can it possibly be a necessary assumption as well?
If the necessary assumption’s role is to put the argument on life support (to use JY’s phrase), then I presume the correct answer should read something like this:
“Usually, wise decisions at least in part require a change in emotional tendencies.”
Any thoughts on this would be greatly appreciated.
Never thought i'd use an equation for the LSAT but here we are. Oddly, this was the fastest way for me on the timed run:
.38(Pulham and Westerville)=.29(Westerville) + X(Pulham)
.38(P) + .38(W) = .29(W )+ X(P)
.38(P) + .9(W) = X(P)
.38 + .9(W/P) =X
Proves answer choice A, because no matter the size of W and P, the result will be greater than .38%.
LSAT writers keep coming up with new stuff, lesson learned XD