Why could it not be that while Azedcorp owns a majority of shares that the total percentage owned is still under 50%? What if Azedcorp owns 40%, Morris owns 39% and Bob owns 21%? This makes Azedcorp the current majority owner. But then if Morris buys Bob's shares she will own 60% becoming the majority owner. Why was it assumed that to be a the majority holder you had to currently own more than 50%?
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Why could it not be that while Azedcorp owns a majority of shares that the total percentage owned is still under 50%? What if Azedcorp owns 40%, Morris owns 39% and Bob owns 21%? This makes Azedcorp the current majority owner. But then if Morris buys Bob's shares she will own 60% becoming the majority owner. Why was it assumed that to be a the majority holder you had to currently own more than 50%?