PLEASE HELP! why isn't "2+ reader agree on corrrect interpretation" a sufficient clause because it comes after unless which is a group 3 negate, sufficient. Is it because of the cannot which is group 4 negate neccessay in which case I still don't understand the mapping.
I'm a little lost on this question like is B wrong because it doesn't encapsulate the conclusion?
1
You've discovered a premium feature!
Subscribe to unlock everything that 7Sage has to offer.
Hold on there, stranger! You need a free account for that.
We love that you want to get going. Just create a free account below—it only takes a minute—and then you can continue!
Hold on there, stranger! You need a free account for that.
We love that you came here to read all the amazing posts from our 300,000+ members. They all have accounts too! Just create a free account below—it only takes a minute—and then you’re free to discuss anything!
Hold on there, stranger! You need a free account for that.
We love that you want to give us feedback! Just create a free account below—it only takes a minute—and then you’re free to vote on this!
Hold on there, you need to slow down.
We love that you want post in our discussion forum! Just come back in a bit to post again!
Subscribers can learn all the LSAT secrets.
Happens all the time: now that you've had a taste of the lessons, you just can't stop -- and you don't have to! Click the button.
PLEASE HELP! why isn't "2+ reader agree on corrrect interpretation" a sufficient clause because it comes after unless which is a group 3 negate, sufficient. Is it because of the cannot which is group 4 negate neccessay in which case I still don't understand the mapping.