Hi,
So I'm not sure about the correct answer C...
Why do we have to assume or compare the ancestors to Neanderthals? Why it's required?
Even though we know homo sapiens ancestors of contemporary humans was not significantly more similar to that of Neanderthals than is the DNA of people today, that only means people today was more similar to Homo sapiens when we compared to Neanderthals.
It could be true there are some similarities between ppl and Neanderthals, just not as much as with homo sapiense.
In that case, we cannot conclude homo sapiens did not interbred with Neanderthals (and it could be true both neanderthals and homo sapiens were ancestors of humans).
I'm really confused with C and do not understand why it's required to make the conclusion in the argument (which is they did not "interbreed")
https://classic.7sage.com/lsat_explanations/lsat-63-section-1-question-19/
umm...thanks. I guess I have to think about this question a little more...
but thanks!