Hi
I thought if there is no cause, then no effect can be true and can strengthen an argument.
then I met this question...PT65.S1.Q15.
From the correct answer it seems it suggests even though there is no such a cause, an effect can happen and thus the argument is a flaw.
So...no cause, then no effect does not actually always be true??
Why in one case it can be a strengthener and in another case it is a flaw...
Comments
However, I see that the stimulus says, in my paraphrase, that cause X produces more deaths than all other causes combined, and therefore if all X were prevented, deaths would decrease by half.
If you're OK with that argument, suppose I further told you that the sample that produced the statistic included only people who were hospitalized for terminal conditions and predicted to die from their condition within 10 days; still OK with the argument?