PT101.S2.Q20 > Question

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The author argues that there are no values shared across cultures as long as there are distinct cultures. This is supported with evidence from anthropological studies, that distinct cultures differ in their moral codes.

Based on the fact that moral codes differ between cultures, the author concludes that no two distinct cultures share even a single moral value. This reveals an assumption that all the values contained in a moral code are unique to that moral code. In other words, the author assumes that when cultures differ on moral codes, they differ entirely rather than at the margins.

This means that anthropologists might not have correctly identified if moral codes really differ between cultures or not. If the studies are flawed, any conclusions drawn based on these studies are questionable.

We don’t care what will happen in the future. We care about cultures that are currently distinct, rather than some hypothetical monoculture later on. This is irrelevant, so does not weaken the argument.

Specific values differ, but foundational values are shared between cultures. So despite having different moral codes, distinct cultures can still share some values, thus undermining the argument.

Studies produced by biased anthropologists are suspect, which means we also can’t draw conclusions based on them. This weakens the argument, which is supported only by anthropological studies.

In other words, the anthropologists' findings are based on a difference in practical beliefs, not underlying values. This weakens the author’s conclusion by showing that cultures actually do share values.

PrepTest 101 - Section 2 - Question 20

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