PT102.S3.Q21 > Question

SECTION 1 · rc

PASSAGE 1

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PASSAGE 2

Question 8 Question 9 Question 10 Question 11 Question 12 Question 13

PASSAGE 3

Question 14 Question 15 Question 16 Question 17 Question 18 Question 19 Question 20 Question 21

PASSAGE 4

Question 22 Question 23 Question 24 Question 25 Question 26

SECTION 2 · lr

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SECTION 3 · lr

SECTION 4 · lr

The author concludes that medieval Arab poets weren’t interested in Aristotle’s Poetics. This is because Aristotle frequently references Homer, whose work a medieval Arab poet would presumably want to read. But Homer wasn’t translated into Arabic until much later, which signals there was low demand at the time.

The author assumes medieval Arab poets couldn’t read Homer in the original Greek, or in some other translated language. The author also assumes that Homer was available to Arab translators, and that medieval Arab poets were numerous enough to generate translation demand.

Arab translators had Homer's works in Greek, so availability wasn't an obstacle to translation. This strengthens by eliminating an alternative explanation for why Homer's works weren't translated.

Were the similarities because medieval Arab storytellers had read Homer? Were both inspired by a third source of stories? Were the similarities just coincidence? We don't know, so this doesn't help us.

This is irrelevant. Whatever other languages that medieval Arab translators knew don't make a difference to the argument. We're specifically concerned with Homer's works, which were originally in Greek.

We don’t care about modern Arab poets, we care about medieval Arab poets. This isn't relevant to the argument, so it can't strengthen.

Lots of works are presumably concerned with drama. This doesn’t tell us whether medieval Arab poets were interested in Aristotle’s Poetics, so it doesn't strengthen.

PrepTest 102 - Section 3 - Question 21

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