Two doctrines have been greatly influential in this century. βββ βββββ βββββ ββββ βββ βββββββββββ ββ βββ ββββββββββ βββββ ββββ ββββββ ββ ββββββββ ββββββββ βββ ββββββ ββββββββ ββ βββββββ βββββββββββββββ βββ βββ ββββββββββ βββββββ ββββββββββ ββ βββββ ββ βββββ βββββββββ βββββββββββ ββββ ββββββββββ ββββββββ βββ βββββββββ βββββββββ βββββ ββββ ββββ ββββββ ββββ ββββ βββ ββββ ββ ββββββββ ββββββ βββ ββ βββ ββββββ ββ βββ βββββ βββββββββ βββββββββββ ββ βββ βββββ ββββββββββββ ββ βββ ββββββ
Doctrine 1 says that explanations of any historical event must appeal to economic factors.
Doctrine 2 tries to explain all historical events in psychological terms.
The author concludes that both doctrines are wrong. Why? Because there are events that were due both to economics and psychological forces.
Why does the author think that the fact some events need both economic and psychological explanations shows that the doctrines are wrong? The authorβs line of reasoning doesnβt make sense, because neither of the doctrines say that events are exclusively caused by economics or exclusively caused by psychology. This gets to the core of the authorβs assumption. Heβs assuming that Doctrine 1 believes events are exclusively explained by economics, and that Doctrine 2 believes events are exclusively explained by psychology.
The argument depends on assuming βββββ βββ ββ βββ ββββββββββ
The first doctrine βββββββββ βββ βββββββββββ βββββββ ββ ββββββββββββ ββ ββββββββββ βββββββ
The second doctrine ββββββ ββββββββββ ββββ ββ βββββββββ ββββββββββββ
Historical events are ββββββββββ ββ ββββ ββ ββ ββββββ ββ ββββββββ βββββββ ββ ββ βββββββββββββ ββββββββ
One is likely ββ ββββ ββββ ββββ ββββββββ βββ βββββββββββββ ββββββββββββ ββββ ββββ ββββββββ βββ βββ βββββ ββββββββββ ββββββ
Appeals to both ββββββββ βββ βββββββββββββ βββββββ βββ ββββββ ββ ββββββββββ βββ ββββββββββ βββββ βββββββββ