For several centuries there have been hairless dogs in western Mexico and in coastal Peru. ██ ██ ████ ████████ ████ █ █████ ██ ████ ██ ████████████ ███████ ██ ███ ████████ ██████████ █████ ███ ████ ████ █████ ███████ ██ ███ █████ ███ ███ ████ ███████████ ██████ ██████████ █████ ███ ███████ █████ ████ ████ ████████ ██████ ███████ ████ █████████ █████████ █████████ ████ ███ ████ ████ ████ ████ ███████████ ████ ███ ██ █████ ███████ ██ ███ █████ ██ █████ ████████ ██████ ███████ ████████████
The hairless dogs in Mexico and Peru must have been transported by boat from one of those two countries to the other, and probably during trade.
Why must they have started in either Mexico or Peru? Well, they wouldn’t have just turned up out of nowhere in both countries. Hairlessness likely didn’t originate twice, so both sets of dogs probably originated a single place.
Why must they have come by boat? They’ve never existed in the wild, so to arrive anywhere else, they must have come with humans. And overland travel between Mexico and Peru was very difficult back when these dogs appeared in those countries.
The author hypothesizes that boats are the answer because overland travel would have been so difficult. But he never says whether boats were any easier. He’s implying a comparison (overland harder, boats easier) without actually supporting that comparison. So he must assume that travel between the two countries was indeed easier by boat than by land.
He also assumes that the dogs weren’t transported to both Mexico and Peru from some other location(s).
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