I need confirmation whether my understanding of OR rule is correct.

There is a rule in the last game of PT24 that says: G cannot be prescribed if both N and U are prescribed.

N & U -->/G

Contrapositive= G --> /N or /U

So there are 3 possibilities if the contrapositive is triggered: 1) N is out 2) U is out or 3) N and U are both out.

If I CHANGE the rule to G --> N or U, would 3 possibilities be 1) N is in 2) U is in or 3) N and U are both in?

Is it correct to consider OR in the above examples as inclusive(and/or), not exclusive?

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2 comments

  • Sunday, Apr 17 2016

    Thank you!! ^_^

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  • Saturday, Apr 16 2016

    Yes, you are correct. The OR is inclusive in this case (it's an "at least one" type of OR)

    For the original rule, you can read the contrapositive to mean

    "if G is in, at least one of N or U are out"

    So all three possibilities you list are correct: U is out, N is out, U and N are both out.

    If you CHANGE the rule to G-->N or U, then at least one of N or U would have to be in. So, N in, or U in, or both N and U in.

    You've got this!

    3

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