I understand why E is wrong, but I don't understand why J.Y is saying in the video explanation that E is strengthening the argument since the argument suggests that if anything the effect goes away with age. In E, they are the oldest of all of the studies, and still experience nearsightedness.

Got confused by the fact that the lesson on Shallow Dip suggests that "A is typically B" also means "most As are Bs". But I guess the trick here is that to typically be something and to typically have isn't the same? This would be why we can't assume that because X typically has Y then most X have Y? Would love some clarification nevertheless.