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I know there are no contrapositive for some, and that contrapositive is just another way of stating the statement, so must be equivalent to the original statement.
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Then I started to think that then "some" does have a contrapositive, since we can change the place of variables.
For example, if we have a statement that "Some A are B: A<-s->B"
Then the contrapositive (the equivalent statement) would be "Some B are A: B<-s>A"
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Do we say there is just another way to stating the original statement, but no contrapositive because there is no sign involved when creating an equivalent statement?
Then does that mean contrapositive requires statement to involve change of sign in terms of negativity or positivity?
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I hope I am making sense! Thanks all
Comments
The two statements (A<-s->B and B<-s>A) are actually the same statement. This is why some prep books, such as PowerScore, use the double arrow <---> when diagramming some statements (JY, if I remember correctly uses it sometimes too). So, no, they're not contrapositives. A contrapositive involves both a negation and a flip. You've flipped the two variables, but no negation has occurred.
So to answer your question, yes it's just a different way of stating the same thing. But a contrapositive's definition is not "just a different way of stating the same thing." A contrapositive needs to have both a flip and negation.
Thank you @Csuposki !