PT86.S1.Q16 - Am I understanding? because Im a bit confused on why it is not A

Legallyblack-2

So Basically from my understanding B is correct because since the study were choosing paintings that were aesthetically better does not mean the other preschoolers artwork were displeasing or the experts work is necessary pleasing? Because it seems like the author is saying that because since the participates chose the the experts work over a preschoolers work he assumed that it abstracts expressionist work is pleasing over the preschoolers work which makes the preschoolers work displeasing which isn’t the case because it is no more pleasing than the experts painting? Am I correct with this? Cause I’m a bit confused on why this answer isn’t A.

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https://7sage.com/lsat_explanations/lsat-86-section-1-question-16/

mesposito886

Can you remind me which PT this is? I do remember that the stimulus says two things:

1. One of the premises states that the participants found that the experts' paintings were aesthetically better than the preschoolers' paintings

2. The conclusion says that because of this study, this proves that the experts' paintings are pleasing

The premises and conclusion contain a gap - an assumption - that the correct answer fills. The premise that the experts' paintings were better does not prove that the experts' paintings were pleasing. What if all the paintings were displeasing, but the experts' paintings were still aesthetically better because they were just less displeasing than the preschoolers'? But if we assume that at least most of the preschoolers' paintings were pleasing, and the experts' paintings are better than the preschoolers', then there is support for the conclusion that the experts' paintings are pleasing.

I don't remember answer choice A but if you let me know the PT I'll take a look.

Legallyblack-2

@mesposito886 said:
Can you remind me which PT this is? I do remember that the stimulus says two things:

1. One of the premises states that the participants found that the experts' paintings were aesthetically better than the preschoolers' paintings

2. The conclusion says that because of this study, this proves that the experts' paintings are pleasing

The premises and conclusion contain a gap - an assumption - that the correct answer fills. The premise that the experts' paintings were better does not prove that the experts' paintings were pleasing. What if all the paintings were displeasing, but the experts' paintings were still aesthetically better because they were just less displeasing than the preschoolers'? But if we assume that at least most of the preschoolers' paintings were pleasing, and the experts' paintings are better than the preschoolers', then there is support for the conclusion that the experts' paintings are pleasing.

I don't remember answer choice A but if you let me know the PT I'll take a look.

Hi this one is from 86!

mauricesfrediere

The answer is B because the entire argument falls apart if you're looking at hideous paintings by children because of the last sentence that states that the paintings are not just "more aesthetically pleasing" but also (this is a shift in the argument in the last sentence) "are aesthetically pleasing". If the argument remained, as it was in the first sentence, simply that the paintings are more aesthetically pleasing, then b wouldn't be necessary. But because it concludes with "are aesthetically pleasing", they need to not only be better than children's paintings, but the assumption has to be that they have to be better than children's paintings that aren't complete eyesores as this establishes both the original argument "more a.p. than children's paintings" and the secondary one, that they are aesthetically pleasing.

The answer is not A because it doesn't actually matter if people are any better at judging paintings in relation to each other rather than on their own. The argument is still valid if people are equally adept at judging a painting's quality on its own and when compared to another painting. You probably fell on this one as the right answer choice because it makes intuitive sense that people's opinions would be more valid when comparing but that's not a necessary assumption.

Legallyblack-2

@mauricesfrediere said:
The answer is B because the entire argument falls apart if you're looking at hideous paintings by children because of the last sentence that states that the paintings are not just "more aesthetically pleasing" but also (this is a shift in the argument in the last sentence) "are aesthetically pleasing". If the argument remained, as it was in the first sentence, simply that the paintings are more aesthetically pleasing, then b wouldn't be necessary. But because it concludes with "are aesthetically pleasing", they need to not only be better than children's paintings, but the assumption has to be that they have to be better than children's paintings that aren't complete eyesores as this establishes both the original argument "more a.p. than children's paintings" and the secondary one, that they are aesthetically pleasing.

The answer is not A because it doesn't actually matter if people are any better at judging paintings in relation to each other rather than on their own. The argument is still valid if people are equally adept at judging a painting's quality on its own and when compared to another painting. You probably fell on this one as the right answer choice because it makes intuitive sense that people's opinions would be more valid when comparing but that's not a necessary assumption.

Oh Okay! So I guess my thoughts above were correct about B. Thank you!