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(E) says that "There are some societies where there exists no concept of blame;" however, this could not possibly weaken Passage B's argument.
Elsewhere in the passage, one of the authors writes that "rehabilitation" (i.e. non-blame-focused) judicial systems dominated in the mid-twentieth-century, but this resulted in a huge blame-focused backlash in subsequent decades.
These societies had "no concept of blame," but they ended up seeing the consequences of that later.
Someone help me out?
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Comments
Yea you are assuming that because they have rehabilitation that they have no concept of blame; it's quite a reach. Criminal justice experts may realize that criminal behavior is not to blame, but that doesn't mean they have no concept of blame. Or as bizarre as it may be, the public in these society have no concept of blame but want to do it this way since it could be a tradition. If some have no concept of blame while others do; it is still quite hard to reach a conclusion that the society as a whole that have these 2 kinds of people have no concept of blame. We just don't know these societies have no concept of blame or not.