If anyone has Practice exam 1 and can help me with a question that I am having trouble grasping I would greatly appreciate it. Its from Section 4 number 21 and its a must be true question. I can't wrap my mind around D being the correct answer because to me it is logically equivalent to answer choice E so I automatically eliminated both. How is "some" different from "many"?
Comments
D is correct because of the contrapositive. No laws -> No crimes, therefore some crimes->some laws. In case you don't know contrapositive, the relationship is that a->b and not b-> not a are logically equivalent.
The reason why E is incorrect is because the logical relationship above says nothing about the number of crimes. "Some" on the LSAT means 1 or more. "Many" could mean any number. So while we can say that if there is a theft that is a crime, there must be a law making that a crime, it would not be equivalent to say that if there are many thefts there must be many laws making them crimes. Maybe there is just a single law?
Feel free to PM me if this doesn't make sense.