Let's say I'm taking the newer LSAT questions 2011-2014 and I've been scoring well and for the 2010 LSATS I'm not doing as hot.. does it matter that the tests are older and perhaps made a bit differently/harder?
This whole time I thought "more likely" = strictly correlation because it means the same as "tend to" which is also correlation, but it seems like it can be used as causation as well according to the more recent PTs.