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Some LR questions have answer choices that say that an argument "assumes without providing justification that (xyz)", and some say that an argument "takes (xyz) for granted". Do these phrases mean the same thing? If not, please explain the difference(s). Thanks! :)
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3 comments
they are basically the same thing. typically when I read an AC that has either of those 2 honestly, I just say 'assumes that ____'.
@harrisonpavlasek841 said:
I would say that for the flaw questions, these basically mean the same thing. What the LSAT is conveying by saying this is, "The author's flaw is that they forgot about the XZY aspect of the argument."
Yeah, these are the terms Mike Kim teaches, but the terms are essentially two sides of the same coin.
I would say that for the flaw questions, these basically mean the same thing. What the LSAT is conveying by saying this is, "The author's flaw is that they forgot about the XZY aspect of the argument."