A society in which there are many crimes, such as

thefts and murders, should not be called

"lawless."

Why is the right answer D and not B?

Edited by Admin: It is against our Forum Rules to post entire LSAT Questions on the Forum. Please use the format"PT#.S#.Q# - brief description of question"

1

2 comments

  • Friday, Jun 10 2022

    D is right because If a society has some crimes (1-99 crimes out of 100), then from the stimulus we can conclude that is has some laws (1-99 laws out of 100). If we have one crime, then we know there is at least 1 law that would make said action into a crime.

    B is wrong because we can still have laws without crimes. It’s confusing sufficient w necessary

    The stimulus says this:

    Crimes ——> laws

    With the contrapostive being

    /laws —-> /crimes

    Answer choice B is saying this:

    /crimes —-> /laws

    0
  • Friday, Jun 10 2022

    A and B are the same logically and there is no way for them to both be write. A is L->C, b is saying Not C-> Not L they are the exact same logically. But what happens if our society has SOME laws? you would infer that there has to be SOME crime why? because if there were no laws, there would be no crime. What is the contrapositive of that? C->L. So, is some included in all? Yes so D has to be correct.

    0

Confirm action

Are you sure?