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I don't understand the use of the word broadsides or the context of this questions at all. I was confused at what it was saying and what was being asked. Please help explain.
Admin Note: Edited title. Please use the format: "PT#.S#.Q# - brief description of question”
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Let's break down the argument:
Conclusion: Although many 17th century broadsides were moralizing in nature, this is not evidence that most 17th century people were serious about moral values.
Why?
Premise: (Because) it is not known why people bought these broadsides, nor is it known how their own beliefs related to what they read.
So, we can't just assume that the act of purchasing something is indicative of our values. For example, many college students had to buy Mein Kampf for a class, but it wouldn't be fair to assume that in doing so they readily subscribed to Hitler's ideas. Under the same principle, the author argues that there could be other reasons for purchasing broadsides other than the idea that people identified with the piece.
That is why B works. B offers that alternative explanation the author needs to drive their point home. It's not that people were serious about moral values, which drove them to purchase the broadside, rather it was the sensationalistic material about crime and adultery that stuck their curiosity.