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Lawgic interpretation of OFTEN

ahnendc-1ahnendc-1 Member

How ought we interpret 'often' in lawgic?

Colloquially, 'often' might be invoked to 'a majority of the times' but it seems to me more analogous to "many" in that it can but does not necessarily imply most.

Instead it seems to me that 'often' implies that there is a some intersection in the same way that 'many' does. Just like 'many', often is subjective to the expected frequency of a particular event and not indicative of a particular objective standard (more likely than not aka 50% + 1).

But of course, my opinion is irrelevant... what have the LSAT gods thus decreed on this?


  • Lucas CarterLucas Carter Alum Member
    2798 karma

    I agree with your "many" interpretation. This is because often is subjective. If you say you go to the park often, it cannot be taken to mean that you are there most of the time; rather, it just means you go there sometimes.

    This interpretation has served me pretty well through all of the LSAT-- I have yet to be burned yet!

  • ahnendc-1ahnendc-1 Member
    642 karma

    Thanks for the corroboration @"Lucas Carter"!

  • EveryCookCanGovernEveryCookCanGovern Alum Member
    401 karma

    Often = some. The only time often = most is if its modified as 'more often then not'

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