PT131.S3.Q10 > Question

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The producer concludes that boycotting advertisers is censorship. Why? Because boycotting will cause a chain of events resulting in a restriction of shows available to the public.

The conclusion is that boycotting advertisers counts as censorship, but we don’t know anything about what qualifies as censorship. For the premises to lead to the conclusion, we need to know that the ultimate result of the boycott (restriction of shows) constitutes censorship.

This supports a conclusion about there being no restriction, and we need to support a conclusion that boycotting = censorship. The contrapositive of (A) supports a conclusion that there is either censorship or boycotting, but we don’t know which.

This is a statement about the possible reach of public boycotts. But which shows are forced off the air doesn’t change whether boycotting qualifies as censorship or not.

Having an audience is not synonymous with public access. The shows that are forced off the air may still have an audience, but public access to them has been restricted, and we need to know that this is enough to be considered censorship.

Public agreement about which advertisers to boycott does not guarantee that boycotting qualifies as censorship.

This gives us a link from a known effect of boycotting (restriction of public access) to our conclusion. (E) guarantees that boycotting is considered censorship.

PrepTest 131 - Section 3 - Question 10

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