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had trouble understanding the phrase “many of our inclinations must be genetic in origin, and not subject to environmental influences.” Would it be fair to focus on the word “must” here?
My understanding is that “must” makes the claim very strong. It is saying these inclinations have to be genetic in origin and cannot be influenced by environment. So if identical twins, who have the same genes, develop different inclinations, that would weaken the claim because it shows genetics alone may not determine those inclinations.
In that case, the exact reason why they develop different inclinations does not matter as much. Even if the reason is that they want to differentiate themselves from each other, the important point is that something other than genetics appears to be influencing their inclinations. Is that the right way to think about it?
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