Can the negated version "Anywhere from none to exactly half of A are B" be two conditional relationships joined by the exclusive "or"? (or the inclusive and/or, we just know that the "and" situation wouldn't happen because you can't have some and none together)
Each relationship:
Some A are B: A ←s→ B
No A are B: A → /B
Together:
(A ←s→ B ) or (A → /B)
Could this be valuable in some circumstances? Maybe to find the broken down possibilities in an answer choice?
#feedback So we decline what he said in the first half of this lesson. Videos 1-16; he told SOME AND MOST don't have A CONTRAPOSITIVE. Because now he's teaching us they do? Am I right? They technically have contrapositives now.
#feedback Just to clarify, the negation of most is NOT some. The reason why is some can imply that at least one person does. In this case, the range is 0-50 so it doesn't have to be one.
I am a bit confused as to these negations relevancy? I understand being familiar with being presented a relationship like this but is that the only reason it was included in foundations?
Why is it that the negation of 'all A are B' is 'some A are not B'? After all, we discussed that 'some' implies at least one. But if I'm saying that 'not all A are B,' doesn't that leave room for the possibility that no A are B? I understand that those two statements aren't equivalent, but it doesn't make sense to me that the negation is 'SOME A are B' if there is the possibility of 0 A being B.
I feel like all this negating is just making things more complex because the LSAT doesn't ask for lawgic or negation really... I understand it's supposed to be a method to help navigate questions more easily, but it's just confusing me.
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71 comments
could it also be that if not most, all? (it is not the case that most ride subway. in fact, all new yorkers ride subway)
67
Most A are B.
Negated:
It's not the case that most A are B.
Half or less of A are B.
Is "Half or Less of A are B" an accurate translation of this concept?
#Feedback
#Tutor #Instructor
Most clowns are unionized
Negation: /(C-m->U) "It's not the case that most clowns are unionized"
Translated: 0-50% of clowns are unionized
Original: Most vegans who are mute are kind
Negated: It's not the case that most vegans who are mute are kind
Translated: 0-50% of vegans who are mute are kind
Cant you just say MOST A are not B
Can the negated version "Anywhere from none to exactly half of A are B" be two conditional relationships joined by the exclusive "or"? (or the inclusive and/or, we just know that the "and" situation wouldn't happen because you can't have some and none together)
Each relationship:
Some A are B: A ←s→ B
No A are B: A → /B
Together:
(A ←s→ B ) or (A → /B)
Could this be valuable in some circumstances? Maybe to find the broken down possibilities in an answer choice?
Would the negation of most be equivalent to the idea of few?
Why are we negating so much? What is this going to do?
is it ok that this makes way more sense to me with just words and not lawgic??
this was fairly simple
So when you negate a "most" statement, "none" "few" "some" "many" could be true?
Would "all" or 100% also be considered as "not most"? Or is it only half or less?
#feedback So we decline what he said in the first half of this lesson. Videos 1-16; he told SOME AND MOST don't have A CONTRAPOSITIVE. Because now he's teaching us they do? Am I right? They technically have contrapositives now.
can you say a FEW nyers ride the train?
#feedback Just to clarify, the negation of most is NOT some. The reason why is some can imply that at least one person does. In this case, the range is 0-50 so it doesn't have to be one.
Just want to be sure I am getting this right!
I am a bit confused as to these negations relevancy? I understand being familiar with being presented a relationship like this but is that the only reason it was included in foundations?
Kevin Lin has a video on negation that makes a bit more sense: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hao4RlRa0e0
Why can't we negate "Most New Yorkers ride the train" to "No more than half of the New Yorkers ride the train"
*#help
*
Why is it that the negation of 'all A are B' is 'some A are not B'? After all, we discussed that 'some' implies at least one. But if I'm saying that 'not all A are B,' doesn't that leave room for the possibility that no A are B? I understand that those two statements aren't equivalent, but it doesn't make sense to me that the negation is 'SOME A are B' if there is the possibility of 0 A being B.
For the example, “Most New Yorkers ride the train”
Could “Most New Yorkers don’t ride the train.” Be a proper negation?
If not, could someone explain why it wouldn’t be correct?
#help
Just wondering why the negated example above is "Anywhere from none to exactly half of A are B" vs. Anywhere from none to exactly half of A is NOT B?
Negating "all" "some" "most" claims is negating the underlying relationship.
take the opposite of what the terms stand for.
most- more than half -> negated = anywhere from 1 to half.
some- more than one -> negated = none
all- every one-> negated = some
Can "most" be negated as "few if not zero"?
I feel like all this negating is just making things more complex because the LSAT doesn't ask for lawgic or negation really... I understand it's supposed to be a method to help navigate questions more easily, but it's just confusing me.