How ought we interpret 'often' in lawgic?
Colloquially, 'often' might be invoked to 'a majority of the times' but it seems to me more analogous to "many" in that it can but does not necessarily imply most.
Instead it seems to me that 'often' implies that there is a some intersection in the same way that 'many' does. Just like 'many', often is subjective to the expected frequency of a particular event and not indicative of a particular objective standard (more likely than not aka 50% + 1).
But of course, my opinion is irrelevant... what have the LSAT gods thus decreed on this?