70 comments

  • Saturday, Oct 11, 2025

    55
    Tuesday, Oct 14, 2025

    @andreabear LOL

    3
    Wednesday, Oct 15, 2025

    @andreabear BRUH lol

    2
  • Wednesday, Sep 17, 2025

    I’m starting to think that law is just all made up

    23
  • Is this even relevant im getting a headache

    12
    Sunday, Jan 11

    @futurelawyerhopefully I would abstract the ideas of this lesson into the way the test messes with specific wording to trick you. The point is just to always pay attention to the specific wording of every question, because the test exploits the fact that in everyday life, we conflate the meanings of words that are technically distinct (like many and most) in our colloquial speech, whereas the LSAT (and infamously, lawyers) will parse out the tiny differences in specific wording to screw you over.

    10
    Monday, May 25

    @mhenwohl Well said. One word can make or break an answer choice. Be very sensitive to quantifier, indicator, and pivot words.

    1
  • Friday, Sep 19, 2025

    When the video said "you could just think of 'many' as equivalent to 'some'", I almost crashed out.

    12
    Friday, Sep 26, 2025

    @ThisClose2CrashingOut it's in order to avoid the association between many and most

    0
  • Thursday, Sep 4, 2025

    Many is not the same as most, as most is higher. However many is the same as some. But some can mean all.

    Bruh.

    11
    Monday, Oct 27, 2025

    @gabahahaha

    • think of "some" and "many" as just a quantity of something

    • think of "most" as a proportion of something

      • think of "some" and "many" as the same under the world of LSAT (since the test will not trick you in the difference between "many" and "some")

    2
  • Thursday, Jun 18

    bird law in this country is not governed by reason (iykyk)

    6
  • Monday, Jan 5

    Can we make the case that the lower bound for many, though unclear, must be at least greater than one (as opposed to some's "at least one"), since a single quantity of something cannot be "many"?

    6
    Thursday, Apr 2

    @caelesalad That's what I was thinking too

    1
    Friday, Apr 24

    @caelesalad

    It says:

    "Many" = "Some"

    You could think of "many" as being equivalent to "some." Let me be clear: this is false. We already established that "many" has a higher minimum threshold than "some." But, it's a useful falsehood because I've never seen the LSAT penalize this conflation.

    2
    Friday, Apr 24

    @caelesalad

    "The lower bound of "many" is higher than that for "some."

    2
  • Sunday, Sep 28, 2025

    If the lower bound of "some" is just at least 1, and the lower bound of "many" is higher than "some," can we just say that the lower bound of "many" is 2?

    6
    Tuesday, Feb 17

    @krzhou_1 I second this question #help

    1
    Edited Thursday, Feb 19

    @krzhou_1 The difference between many and some is that it makes an existence claim, not a percentage claim unlike the difference between many vs. most. If X is many, that means that X exists (at least one of X exists)= X is some

    1
  • Wednesday, Jun 3

    makes sense, thank you

    5
  • Wednesday, Dec 31, 2025

    Think of It like this: Many can be many while still being below the threshold of most which is more than half. Many can not definitively mean most. However, Most means many because more than half is certainly many. The main difference is that many does not need to be half or more than half. Most relies on proportion while many does not.

    4
  • Tuesday, Apr 1, 2025

    MOST means 50% - 100% (majority or could be all)

    based on that logic...

    MANY could mean 25% - 50% ? < more than "few" , less than "most"?

    Context remains king on LSAT questions.

    4
    Wednesday, Apr 30, 2025

    Most is 51 to 100%

    9
  • Wednesday, Sep 25, 2024

    Something that helps me with these new quantifiers, and may click as well for those who have written literature reviews, is the distinction between "most", "many", and "some" when referencing scholarly opinions. I try to reserve "most" for when I'm describing a viewpoint that is widely accepted by the majority of scholars. For instance, when I say "many/some scholars argue that", I'm implying that a number of scholars hold a particular view, but not necessarily the majority. On the other hand, when I say "most scholars argue that", I'm suggesting that the majority of scholars agree on that point.

    “Many scholars argue that 7sage should incorporate videos to help illustrate difficult concepts and enhance the learning experience. Some scholars, however, defend 7sage's current approach, suggesting that they are doing their best with the resources available. Nevertheless, most agree that, given the premium they pay for the service, they should have access to high-quality visual content that meets their expectations.”

    4
  • Wednesday, Apr 8

    Hi all, I made another flashcard set. This time for memorizing Quantifiers. Flashcards are what really helped me in undergrad and so I decided to make them to companion my 7sage studies. Thought I'd share to help others who would benefit :) made a folder that I will most likely add more sets to as I go. Much Love and happy studying! https://quizlet.com/user/ehoffmanwallace/folders/lsat-7sage-flashcards

    3
  • Monday, Dec 8, 2025

    "some birds migrate south." All that we can logically conclude from that statement is that at least 1 bird migrates south. If we say: "many birds migrate south." Then we can logically conclude that more than 1 bird migrates south. Essentially, on the LSAT you will only want to conclude the least amount of information possible. Dont try to figure out if all birds migrate south or if most birds migrate south because the only information that is gauranteed is what is stated in the sentence.

    3
  • Tuesday, Jan 28, 2025

    This might be a silly question, but "several" was listed as a quantifier that indicates an intersectional relationship a few lessons ago but I don't see a lesson dedicated to it... Does anyone know if we should think of it as the same as "many"? And in that case, would it be considered equivalent to "some" as well?

    3
    Sunday, Feb 23, 2025

    Several is equivalent to Some.

    Several X are Y = Some X are Y

    Several in LSAT means at least 2, but not necessarily many.

    Some means at least 1 but usually at least 2 lol

    since several guarantees at least 2, and some guarantees at least 1,

    so, we can safely say :

    Several X are Y = Some X are Y

    Correct me if I am wrong.

    0
  • Wednesday, Dec 10, 2025

    Does not matter specifically how much many is. All that is important to know is that many is more than some. Some can be at least 1 so just think about many being a bit more than that. BUT DON'T THINK MANY = MOST. WE DON'T KNOW IF MANY IS MOST. What we do know is that many is more than some

    2
  • Monday, Aug 11, 2025

    Here is what I am finding a good way to see it for those of you who are unclear:

    If i said many students cheated on the test that could only mean 6/20 students which is still a lot in proportion of students who would cheat on any given test. On the contrary if I said most students cheated on the test then that must mean 11/20 cheated 

    2
  • Friday, Nov 15, 2024

    how is "some cats like to drink milk" okay for "one cat likes to drink milk"?? the statement defines and establishes a plural "some cats" like to drink milk...... so does that not mean at least more than one has to like drinking milk?

    2
  • Thursday, Jul 11, 2024

    #help

    Can we conclude it to Some < Many < Most?

    Thank you!

    2
    Friday, Jul 26, 2024

    My assumption is no, because "some" and "most" are qualitative of a set (%) and "many" is quantitative (#).

    For example

    "Many people eat bread."

    "Many" could be 1 million people eating bread, but that could be 2% of a total group (50 million people total)

    Whereas in "some people eat bread," the "some" could be 95% of 50 million people (47,500,000 people)

    Further, in this case, "most" could be, say, 51% of 50 million people eating bread (25500000).

    In these hypothetical cases, then:

    1,000,000 (many) < 25500000 (most) < 47500000 (some)

    Equating "some" to "many" is just a more accurate comparison than the word "most" because its limit is less defined when using lawgic.

    I think I could be totally off the mark, but that's how I've compartmentalized it so far.

    1
  • Saturday, Jun 22, 2024

    So the lower bound of many is greater than some, but the upper bound of many could be the same as some.

    2
    Wednesday, Jun 26, 2024

    That is correct.

    0
  • Wednesday, Mar 6, 2024

    There's only ~50 billion birds on planet earth

    2
  • Friday, Apr 24
    1. Like 50 birds fly south each winter (50 is a lot of birds!)

    2. At least half of all birds in the world fly south each winter (that's a lot more than 50!)

    1
  • Thursday, Feb 26

    can we equate "overwhelming majority" to "most"?

    1

    @KhushyMandania no, however, an overwhelming majority of X includes most of X, but the same cannot be said vice versa.

    I understand many to be more than some and less than most. maybe this helps idk tho lol

    7
    Monday, Jul 13

    @CarlosHernandez03 Yeah, careful. Many is not less than Most, because again, many is talking about numbers while most is talking about percentages. Numerically, many can cover most just like some can cover most and all. But proportionally (%) is where the distinction happens. So just gotta be careful not to confuse numbers for percentages.

    1
  • Tuesday, Feb 17

    Is it correct to understand that the upper bound for some, many, and most can all be the same?

    1
    Edited Wednesday, Feb 25

    @elchapin I believe it all depends on context

    2
    Friday, Apr 24

    @elchapin They can implicitly or explicitly include or exclude all

    2
  • Saturday, Dec 6, 2025

    So can many include all?

    1

Confirm action

Are you sure?