Here's the problem and JY's explanation: https://classic.7sage.com/lsat_explanations/lsat-17-section-3-question-01/
My question: is the necessary condition ALWAYS a precondition to the sufficient condition? If yes, does that mean the precondition exists before the sufficient condition?
This question messed my world up. This is the first I've ever come across "precondition" and I'm super confused. What I gather from JY's explanation, and possibly my interpretation is wrong, but I gather than in any Sufficient --> Necessary relationship, the Necessary condition is always a precondition to the Sufficient condition. Which makes sense for me in certain situations like... well now that I'm thinking about it I don't even know if that much is true for me.
Anyways, how can the necessary condition in the following example be considered a precondition?
If X now then Y future.
How is Y a precondition to X if Y happens after x?
Well, maybe I just answered my own question. I'm getting hung up on "truthfulness" of a given argument when truthfulness is something that we must just assume for every question. Right? So I guess I just submit to the fact that each necessary condition is a precondition to the sufficient even if the truthfulness factor of that being so is laughable?
Admin Note: Edited title. Please use the format "PT#.S#.Q# - brief description of question"