I know there are no contrapositive for some, and that contrapositive is just another way of stating the statement, so must be equivalent to the original statement.
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Then I started to think that then "some" does have a contrapositive, since we can change the place of variables.
For example, if we have a statement that "Some A are B: A(-s-)B"
Then the contrapositive (the equivalent statement) would be "Some B are A: B(-s)A"
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Do we say there is just another way to stating the original statement, but no contrapositive because there is no sign involved when creating an equivalent statement?
Then does that mean contrapositive requires statement to involve change of sign in terms of negativity or positivity?
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I hope I am making sense! Thanks all (3(/p)
