i'm in an advanced shakespeare course at school, and a guy in my class acts in a some shakespeare play thing that simulates the conditions of how plays were conducted in shakespearean times.
he told us that back in the day, every actor had their own lines, and basically nothing of anything else: no knowledge of other people's casted roles or lines, no dress rehearsals, etc.
this random knowledge allowed me to choose the correct answer choice, so i felt compelled to share. yay!
This one might be the most ridiculous question I have encountered so far. I personally picked D off the assumption that an actor in a play would have at least read the source material of the play they are in. I also felt that it was a reasonable assumption that a spectator or "fan" of Hamlet could be particularly interested in a character or speech in the play and that could explain why the speech was very accurate but the rest of the play is put together rather haphazardly. For the correct answer to rely on outside knowledge of the reality of how expensive and exclusive owning books in the 17th century is seems like a huge stretch.
Iffy question, because it's assumption of answer (c) vs assumption (d). I got it right originally, and then got it wrong in blind review because I said to myself "if we're making assumptions, how could an actor NOT have a copy of Hamlet? vs spectator just be a fanatic about a character's role?" It's really funny how watching the video, the explanation actually touched on this question. If you were frustrated with this question, welcome to the club :)
it is just as possible that the actor did have a copy of hamlet as a spectator was obsessed with a certain actor... the only way to choose this answer is with outside knowledge of 17th century printing habits, which goes against everything we have learned about outside knowledge? idk this one seems like a stretch to me
@LiviaLSAT I was so-so on that part, what made it click for me was the only accurate rendering of a single character, made think right away of an actor.
this shit must be in my head cause i was doing awful on the other RRE questions and did well on this one even though it supposedly uses the same logic?
@woffutt In shakespear's time, actors were not actually given a full script. That being said, the first line of both choices can't be assumed.
Actors: Can we say they own or don't own the play? (No. We can only say they receive their parts for sure.)
Spectator: Can we say they own or don't own the play? (No. We all know people who have seen Harry Potter, but not read a single word of the book.)
So, we have to go on the second statement and fact.
Can a spectator replicate one characters lines perfectly? (or speech?) Maybe. Like Prozd on Peter Pan. BUT maybe not.
How about actors: Well, almost most definitely (still an assumption, but not a stretch) they know their own part quite well. Do they know the others? Maybe, but maybe not. BUT they know at least their own.
So, if you are between C and D. Considering the first line is an assumption on both (And if you are a literature historian, not even that), then the second line would b the determining spot. (At least this was how I took it.)
Honestly i just looked at the second piece of evidence to choose actor instead of spectator. Second piece leans way more towards actor than spectator: an actor would be able to render a speech much clearer if it's their own speech (rehearsed and memorized) compared to a spectator (merely observed the speech).
@MelanieGonzalez This is a most supported question, not must be true. So the one that most supports it doesn't actually have to do a good job supporting it, just better than the other options
@MelanieGonzalez When I look back on it (I got it wrong too for the same reasoning), the actor only received lines for their role, not the entire play. This is why they were able to recite 1 characters lines but not the rest completely.
1: This actor is not mentioned in another play. Other plays are not mentioned. Similarly: what reason do we have to believe that a firefighter in the adjacent town owns a copy. We don't. Its Reasonable to assume that the person with these traits would be an actor not a firefighter.
@SMRegalado Yes but remember our goal is most strongly supported. Actor is vague they could be a child who acts in Bollywood for all we know, why would they own a copy of hamlet, but actor in Hamlet is quite specific and fits perfectly.
If it's unreasonable to assume that a spectator cannot remeber a speech (one speech), then it's unreasonable to assume an actor does not have a copy of the play. Between C and D there are two competing unreasonable assumptions.
Also, no offense, but how the fuck am I supposed to recognize that the printing press was not invented in the 17th century.
Yeah this one stumped me a bit, I am confused by the reasonable assumption that we cannot assume that an actor would have access to a copy of Hamlet. The 17th century is known for when the printing press exploded in popularity. And, this was also when it was popularized in more common uses, so I feel it would be reasonable to assume access to same, especially studying for the role.
Nonetheless, I still see how C is the better answer here ultimately than D, but it feels like two competing assumptions, one that an actor does not have access, and the other that a spectator did not just hone in on a single performance during the play. Argh, missed this one ultimately, oh well.
@SMRegalado But are they an actor in Hamlet? I would say its reasonable to assume that an actor who has partaken in the play in question, owns a copy. However, what reason do we have to believe that an actor in say Twelfth Night, also owns a copy of Hamlet.
I used the spectrum of support and assumptions to narrow down between C and D. Once I had those two, C made less and more reasonable assumptions, so I picked it.
nah, i got this one right and i still think the actor not having a copy of the script is a weak assumption. still though, the question asks which answer is MOST supported. While C is not perfect it is stronger than the others.
MY THEATRE DEGREE FINALLY PAYS OFF IN THE LSAT PREP OH MY GOD
I'll try and address common concerns with this question
1) Wouldn't an actor have a copy of the play?
In Shakespeare's time, and basically up until industrial printing was commonplace, actors only got a copy of their own lines.
2) How would I know the answer without prior knowledge?
Even without knowing this, it stands to reason that an actor playing a character would be very familiar with their own lines, and would have a general vibe of the other characters' lines around them.
If there's any others I missed I'll edit and address them if I can :)
@RyanAlexander I got this question right, but I was a bit perplexed at why someone who acted in the play wouldn't have had a copy. It was the only thing that made me second guess my answer. Thanks for offering an explanation!
@AutumnDixon I have the answer!!! I am a professional theatre actor and did performance and theatre history for my undergrad!
Back in Shakespeare's time, actors weren't given copies of the play, they were given literally just their own lines. This follows logically with why Claudius, let's say, is incredibly well transcribed but the rest of the characters just get the gist of it.
@AutumnDixon even without knowing the context, its MSS, not MBT. C is clearly the one that is the most strongly supported. It is not unreasonable that an actor wouldn't have a copy
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174 comments
fun (somehow helpful) fact!
i'm in an advanced shakespeare course at school, and a guy in my class acts in a some shakespeare play thing that simulates the conditions of how plays were conducted in shakespearean times.
he told us that back in the day, every actor had their own lines, and basically nothing of anything else: no knowledge of other people's casted roles or lines, no dress rehearsals, etc.
this random knowledge allowed me to choose the correct answer choice, so i felt compelled to share. yay!
This one might be the most ridiculous question I have encountered so far. I personally picked D off the assumption that an actor in a play would have at least read the source material of the play they are in. I also felt that it was a reasonable assumption that a spectator or "fan" of Hamlet could be particularly interested in a character or speech in the play and that could explain why the speech was very accurate but the rest of the play is put together rather haphazardly. For the correct answer to rely on outside knowledge of the reality of how expensive and exclusive owning books in the 17th century is seems like a huge stretch.
Iffy question, because it's assumption of answer (c) vs assumption (d). I got it right originally, and then got it wrong in blind review because I said to myself "if we're making assumptions, how could an actor NOT have a copy of Hamlet? vs spectator just be a fanatic about a character's role?" It's really funny how watching the video, the explanation actually touched on this question. If you were frustrated with this question, welcome to the club :)
C got me because i thought "how on earth could a person in a play not have a copy of said play"?
it is just as possible that the actor did have a copy of hamlet as a spectator was obsessed with a certain actor... the only way to choose this answer is with outside knowledge of 17th century printing habits, which goes against everything we have learned about outside knowledge? idk this one seems like a stretch to me
@LiviaLSAT I was so-so on that part, what made it click for me was the only accurate rendering of a single character, made think right away of an actor.
@LiviaLSAT Yea, I forgot that it was set in the 17th century when looking at the answer choices. Makes more sense now when I think about it that way.
this shit must be in my head cause i was doing awful on the other RRE questions and did well on this one even though it supposedly uses the same logic?
An actor who has played a role in Hamlet doesn't have a copy of the play they were in?
@woffutt In shakespear's time, actors were not actually given a full script. That being said, the first line of both choices can't be assumed.
Actors: Can we say they own or don't own the play? (No. We can only say they receive their parts for sure.)
Spectator: Can we say they own or don't own the play? (No. We all know people who have seen Harry Potter, but not read a single word of the book.)
So, we have to go on the second statement and fact.
Can a spectator replicate one characters lines perfectly? (or speech?) Maybe. Like Prozd on Peter Pan. BUT maybe not.
How about actors: Well, almost most definitely (still an assumption, but not a stretch) they know their own part quite well. Do they know the others? Maybe, but maybe not. BUT they know at least their own.
So, if you are between C and D. Considering the first line is an assumption on both (And if you are a literature historian, not even that), then the second line would b the determining spot. (At least this was how I took it.)
@DNAlex Thank you! This completely cleared it up for me.
@woffutt
I’m happy to hear that!
How is an actor that played hamlet not supposed to have a copy of Hamlet?
Honestly i just looked at the second piece of evidence to choose actor instead of spectator. Second piece leans way more towards actor than spectator: an actor would be able to render a speech much clearer if it's their own speech (rehearsed and memorized) compared to a spectator (merely observed the speech).
@MelanieGonzalez This is a most supported question, not must be true. So the one that most supports it doesn't actually have to do a good job supporting it, just better than the other options
@MelanieGonzalez When I look back on it (I got it wrong too for the same reasoning), the actor only received lines for their role, not the entire play. This is why they were able to recite 1 characters lines but not the rest completely.
@TylerMadani021
1: This actor is not mentioned in another play. Other plays are not mentioned. Similarly: what reason do we have to believe that a firefighter in the adjacent town owns a copy. We don't. Its Reasonable to assume that the person with these traits would be an actor not a firefighter.
@SMRegalado Yes but remember our goal is most strongly supported. Actor is vague they could be a child who acts in Bollywood for all we know, why would they own a copy of hamlet, but actor in Hamlet is quite specific and fits perfectly.
Probably one of the most fun questions I've seen on this test. Its like playing detective.
I had C initially, but I figured, if he was an actor, why would he NOT have a copy of the play????
If it's unreasonable to assume that a spectator cannot remeber a speech (one speech), then it's unreasonable to assume an actor does not have a copy of the play. Between C and D there are two competing unreasonable assumptions.
Also, no offense, but how the fuck am I supposed to recognize that the printing press was not invented in the 17th century.
@CMas THISSSSS!
@CMas 100%. Gut said C at first but then I went between C and D because I started thinking about these exact assumptions.
Yeah this one stumped me a bit, I am confused by the reasonable assumption that we cannot assume that an actor would have access to a copy of Hamlet. The 17th century is known for when the printing press exploded in popularity. And, this was also when it was popularized in more common uses, so I feel it would be reasonable to assume access to same, especially studying for the role.
Nonetheless, I still see how C is the better answer here ultimately than D, but it feels like two competing assumptions, one that an actor does not have access, and the other that a spectator did not just hone in on a single performance during the play. Argh, missed this one ultimately, oh well.
A reasonable assumption would be that an actor would have a copy of hamlet.
@SMRegalado But are they an actor in Hamlet? I would say its reasonable to assume that an actor who has partaken in the play in question, owns a copy. However, what reason do we have to believe that an actor in say Twelfth Night, also owns a copy of Hamlet.
I used the spectrum of support and assumptions to narrow down between C and D. Once I had those two, C made less and more reasonable assumptions, so I picked it.
after getting demolished with RRE, getting this correct is the confidence boost i needed
This one felt too good to be true in terms of the explanation compared to the others. I got it right so won't say much.
nah, i got this one right and i still think the actor not having a copy of the script is a weak assumption. still though, the question asks which answer is MOST supported. While C is not perfect it is stronger than the others.
I'm cooked, chat
MY THEATRE DEGREE FINALLY PAYS OFF IN THE LSAT PREP OH MY GOD
I'll try and address common concerns with this question
1) Wouldn't an actor have a copy of the play?
In Shakespeare's time, and basically up until industrial printing was commonplace, actors only got a copy of their own lines.
2) How would I know the answer without prior knowledge?
Even without knowing this, it stands to reason that an actor playing a character would be very familiar with their own lines, and would have a general vibe of the other characters' lines around them.
If there's any others I missed I'll edit and address them if I can :)
@RyanAlexander your excitement is so tangible LOL the lsat definitely becomes 100x more fun when you actually know some trivia inside it
i had a similar experience with a question about a species of dragonfly and crawfish since i'm a huge animal nerd
@RyanAlexander I got this question right, but I was a bit perplexed at why someone who acted in the play wouldn't have had a copy. It was the only thing that made me second guess my answer. Thanks for offering an explanation!
@RyanAlexander Bravo 👏👏
what the fuck man, how the fuck am i supposed to fucking know that about the fucking printing press. fuck the printing press. fuck the lsat.
This confused me because as an actor, wouldn't you have a copy of the play? This is a bad question LSAC
@AutumnDixon I have the answer!!! I am a professional theatre actor and did performance and theatre history for my undergrad!
Back in Shakespeare's time, actors weren't given copies of the play, they were given literally just their own lines. This follows logically with why Claudius, let's say, is incredibly well transcribed but the rest of the characters just get the gist of it.
@AutumnDixon even without knowing the context, its MSS, not MBT. C is clearly the one that is the most strongly supported. It is not unreasonable that an actor wouldn't have a copy
THIS IS A MSS.. WHAT. I didnt read the stem correctly. mannnn
WHY WOULD AN ACTOR NOT HAVE A COPY OF THE PLAY??????
@Premiseprincess Actors back then didn't get copies of the play, they only got their own lines!
reading the comments is making me realize that my history degree is paying off in a huge way right now