Hey, quick question. Can one go from
(X ---> Y) ---> Z
~Z ---> ~(X ---> Y)
To
Z & X ---> Y?
Intuitively I feel I can, but I don't recall that exact translation being in the CC. I recall that I could go from (X ---> Y) ---> Z to X & Y ---> Z, but not the one above. If i can make this inference, how and why?
Thanks!!
